FALL 2000 #2
Let G be a finite group, and let f: G --> G be a homomorphism satisfying f2 = 1G. Assume also that f(g) = g if and only if g = e, the identity element of G.
(a) Show that for all g in G, there exists an h in G such that g = h-1f(h).
(b) Prove that G must be abelian.
In fact, part (a) is asking us to show that G = {h-1f(h) : h in G}. Since G is finite, it suffices to show that |G| < |{h-1f(h) : h in G}|. This is accomplished by showing that the map h |--> h-1f(h) is an injection:
Suppose that a-1f(a) = b-1f(b), where a and b are elements of G.
Then f(ab-1) = ab-1.
Since f fixes only the identity element of G, it follows that ab-1 = e; i.e., a = b and this finishes part (a).
Now for part (b). First, we claim that f(g) = g-1 for all g in G:
Let g be an element of G. Then there exists an element h in G such that
g = h-1f(h).
Then f(g) = f(h-1)h = (h-1 f(h) )-1 = g-1.
The proof that G is abelian, is now trivial:
Let a and b be elements of G. Then (ab)-1 = f(ab) = f(a)f(b) = a-1b-1.
Whence, ab = ba.